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    GPAT Important Questions with Answer Key For 2026 Preparation

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    Created On : Oct 06, 2025 Updated On : Oct 07, 2025 5 min read

    Preparing for GPAT 2026? First, take a deep breath. You are not alone in this journey. Thousands of pharmacy students across the country are working towards the same goal, and what will make the real difference is smart preparation. GPAT isn’t just about mugging up formulas or revising definitions; it’s about practising the right kind of questions that give you clarity and boost your confidence.

    In this blog, we’ll walk through several important GPAT questions with answer keys directly from the recent paper (2025). These will give you a clear idea of the exam style, marking, and the kind of knowledge expected. We’ll also discuss why practising these questions helps, and at the end, I’ve added 5 FAQs most students usually ask about GPAT preparation.

    So, grab your notebook, and let’s dive in!

    Why Solve Previous Year’s GPAT Questions?

    1. Exam Pattern Familiarity – You know exactly what to expect (MCQs, difficulty level, etc.).
    2. Spot Weak Areas – If you can’t solve a question, that’s a sign of where you need more revision.
    3. Confidence Booster – When you start getting them right, it builds exam-day confidence.
    4. Shortcut Identification – You’ll start recognizing tricks, recurring topics, and smart ways to save time.
    5. Score Maximization – Practice increases your accuracy and reduces negative marking.
    6. GPAT 2026 – 20 Important Questions with Answer Key

    Here are 20 selected questions from the GPAT 2025 paper. 

    Question 1:
    Match the following:
    (P) Schedule H
    (Q) Schedule G
    (R) Schedule P
    (S) Schedule F2

    Descriptions:
    (I) Life period of drugs
    (II) Drugs used under RMP
    (III) List of Prescription Drugs
    (IV) Standards for surgical dressing

    (A) P-I, Q-II, R-IV, S-III

    (B) P-III, Q-IV, R-I, S-II

    (C) P-III, Q-II, R-I, S-IV

    (D) P-IV, Q-III, R-II, S-I

    Answer: (C)

    Question 2:
    Match the following:
    (1) Schedule FF
    (2) Schedule F3
    (3) Schedule V
    (4) Schedule Y

    Descriptions:
    (P) Standards of patent and proprietary medicines
    (Q) Requirements and guidelines for clinical trials
    (R) Standards for sterilized umbilical tapes
    (S) Standards for Ophthalmic preparations

    (A)1-[P], 2-[Q], 3-[S], 4-[R]

    (B)1-[Q], 2-[R], 3-[P], 4-[S]

    (C)1-[S], 2-[R], 3-[P], 4-[Q]

    (D) 1-[R], 2-[P], 3-[Q], 4-[S]

    Answer: (C)

    Question 3:
    If the label or the container bears the name of an individual or company purporting to be the manufacturer of the drug, which individual or company is fictitious or does not exist, it is:

    (A) Misbranded Drug
    (B) Adulterated Drug
    (C) Spurious Drug
    (D) Not of Standard Quality

    Answer: C. Spurious Drug

    Question 4:
    ISO for quality assurance of Design, Development, Processing, Installation, and Servicing is:

    (A) ISO9000
    (B) ISO9001
    (C) ISO9002
    (D) ISO9003

    Answer: B. 

    Question 5:
    According to the ICH guidelines for stability studies, Climatic Zone II temperature and relative humidity are respectively:

    (A) 25°C and 60% RH
    (B) 30°C and 65% RH
    (C) 40°C and 75% RH
    (D) 25°C and 75% RH

    Answer: A

    Question 6:
    How much volume of Raw spirit can an excise officer withdraw as sample?

    (A) One sample of 200 ml
    (B) Two samples of 150 ml each
    (C) Three samples of same batch, each not more than 100 ml
    (D) One sample of 500 ml

    Answer: C 

    Question 7:
    Minimum manufacturing space for 'Habb-Unani medicine' as per Schedule of D and C Act?

    (A) 50 Sq.Ft.
    (B) 75 Sq.Ft.
    (C) 100 Sq.Ft.
    (D) 150 Sq.Ft.

    Answer: C

    Question 8:
    Manufacturing Specification for tooling has been standardized by?

    (A) USFDA
    (B) CDSCO
    (C) Indian Pharmacopoeial Commission
    (D) WHO

    Answer: C

    Question 9:
    Match the pair of drugs and their family:

    Column A (Drugs):

    1. Snake root
    2. Artemisia
    3. Bitter almond        
    4. Myrrh

    Column B (Family):
    (P) Compositae
    (Q) Rosaceae
    (R) Apocynaceae
    (S) Burseraceae

    (A)1-[R], 2-[P], 3-[Q], 4-[S]

    (B)1-[Q], 2-[R], 3-[P], 4-[S]

    (C)1-[P], 2-[Q], 3-[S], 4-[R]

    (D)1-[S], 2-[P], 3-[R], 4-[Q]

    Answer: A

    Question 10:
    Which of the following alkaloids are found as salts of meconic acid?

     (A) Rauwolfia Alkaloid
    (B) Tropane Alkaloid
    (C) Ergot Alkaloid
    (D) Opium Alkaloid

    Answer: D

    Question 11:
    Choose the correct statement from the following:
    (P) Anthraquinone derivatives are generally detected by Borntrager’s test
    (Q) Anthrone is yellow colored and soluble in alkali
    (R) Anthranol is insoluble in alkali and shows strong red fluorescence
    (S) Borntrager’s test gives negative result with Anthranol (Reduced form)

    (A)P and S Only

    (B)R Only

    (C)Q and R Only

    (D)P Only

    Answer: A

    Question 12:
    Choose the correct statement from the following:

    (A) Tannin solution precipitate alkaloid
    (B) Hydrolysable tannin produce gallic and ellagic acid by enzymatic and acid hydrolysis
    (C) Condensed tannin converted into red color substance known as phlobaphene on acid and enzymatic hydrolysis
    (D) Tannin are insoluble in water

    (A)A and C Only

    (B)B Only D Only

    (C)C Only

    (D)A, B and C are correct

    Answer: D 

    Question 13:
    Trikatu in Ayurveda is a combination of:

    (A) Black mustard, Long pepper, Ginger
    (B) Black pepper, Long pepper, Betal
    (C) Black pepper, Long pepper, Ginger
    (D) Black pepper, Small pepper, Ginger

    Answer: C

    Question 14:
    Glycogenic amino acids enter TCA cycle except:

    (A) Alanine
    (B) Glycine
    (C) Glutamate
    (D) Aspartate

    Answer: B

    Question 15:
    Match the following:
    (P) Tuberculosis
    (Q) Diphtheria
    (R) Yellow fever
    (S) Malaria

    Descriptions:
    (1) Bacterial
    (2) Viral
    (3) Toxoids
    (4) Protozoal

    (A) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4

    (B) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

    (C) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4

    (D) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

    Answer: A

    Question 16:
    Which of the following is used to evaluate disinfectant?

    (A) Widal test
    (B) VRDL test
    (C) Chick Martin test
    (D) None of these

    Answer: C

    Question 17:
    Oral vaccine such as Dukoral® and Shanchol™ is used for prevention of:

    (A) Pneumonia
    (B) Ebola virus
    (C) Cholera
    (D) Polio

    Answer: C

    Question 18:
    Which parasitic worm is responsible for causing lymphatic filariasis?

    (A) Wuchereria bancrofti
    (B) Brugia malayi
    (C) Onchocerca volvulus
    (D) Ancylostoma duodenale

    Answer: A

    Question 19:
    Which statistical test is used to compare mean of two identical group?

    (A) ANOVA
    (B) Sample t test
    (C) Paired t test
    (D) Pooled t test

    Answer: C

    Question 20:
    Which enzyme is responsible for albinism?

    (A) Beta-hydroxylase
    (B) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
    (C) Hydroxylase
    (D) Tyrosinase

    Answer: D

    Tips to Use These Questions for GPAT Preparation

    • Don’t just read answers, revise concepts - For example, if you got confused in Question 15 about disease classification, revise your Microbiology basics.
    • Practice in timed conditions - GPAT gives you 3 hours for 125 questions. That’s about 1.5 minutes per question.
    • Focus on accuracy, not guesswork - Negative marking can pull your score down fast.
    • Revise daily - Even 10 questions a day builds a strong recall.

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    Final Words

    GPAT 2026 is not just about hard work; it’s about strategic practice. If you keep solving questions like the ones we shared above, revise smartly, and stay consistent, you’ll not just clear GPAT, you’ll clear it with a strong rank.

    Stay calm, keep practising, and remember: every single question you solve today is one step closer to your dream college tomorrow.

    FAQs

    Q- How many questions come in GPAT, and what is the marking scheme?

    Ans-
    • Total: 125 MCQs
    • Correct answer = +4 marks
    • Wrong answer = −1 mark

    Q- Which subjects carry the highest weightage?

    Ans-
    • Pharmaceutics
    • Pharmacology
    • Pharmaceutical Chemistry
    • Pharmacognosy

    These four together make up the majority of the paper.

    Q- How should I practice daily for GPAT?

    Ans-
    • Solve 20–25 MCQs daily.
    • Revise short notes or flashcards.
    • Attempt at least 1 full mock test every week.

    Q- Is solving previous year’s papers enough for GPAT?

    Ans- Not completely, but it’s the best starting point. Combine it with NCERT basics, standard reference books, and mocks for full coverage.

    Q- What is a good score in GPAT to get into top colleges?

    Ans- A safe score is usually above 160–170 marks (depending on cut-offs and category). But the higher, the better your chances at NIPERs and top universities.
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    Dr. Mansi Bhatt
    about the author

    Mansi Bhatt is a PharmD graduate and a professional medical writer who brings together a wealth of scientific knowledge, accuracy, and clear communication. With a strong background in pharmacy, she offers clinical insights that allow her to craft well-researched, engaging, and reliable content. Her work spans educational articles, clinical blogs, and scientific explainers. She has a special interest in health education, drug information, and making evidence-based medicine more accessible through simple words.

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