The OPRA Exam (Overseas Pharmacist Readiness Assessment) is a key milestone for internationally qualified pharmacists who want to build their careers in Australia. It goes beyond textbook knowledge and tests how well you can apply concepts in real-life clinical situations, covering calculations, patient safety, and practical decision-making aligned with Australian pharmacy standards.
One of the smartest ways to prepare for OPRA 2026 is by practising exam-style MCQs that feel as close to the real exam as possible. That’s exactly what this blog offers. You’ll find a carefully designed OPRA Exam sample paper, along with practical preparation tips, common mistakes to avoid, and clear answers to frequently asked questions, everything you need to prepare with confidence and clarity.
OPRA Exam Sample Questions
The following OPRA Exam sample questions are designed to reflect the structure, difficulty level, and clinical focus of the actual OPRA Exam. They cover a balanced mix of calculation-based, clinical, and concept-driven MCQs to help candidates assess their preparedness. Practising these questions under timed conditions will improve accuracy, reinforce key concepts, and build confidence for the OPRA Exam 2026.
1. A ferrous sulphate mixture contains 300 mg of ferrous sulphate per 10 mL. If a patient is instructed to take 10 mL three times daily, what is the total daily intake of elemental iron (Fe)?
Data: Ferrous Sulphate (FeSO₄·7H₂O) molecular weight = 278; Iron (Fe) molecular weight = 55.9
A. 3.23 mg
B. 17.1 mg
C. 60.0 mg
D. 181.0 mg
2. The pain experienced in angina pectoris is primarily due to which underlying cause?
A. Spasm of the aorta
B. Ventricular tachycardia
C. Aortic stenosis
D. Myocardial ischaemia
3. Uncomplicated urinary tract infections are most commonly caused by which organism?
A. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
B. Campylobacter jejuni
C. Giardia lamblia
D. Moraxella catarrhali
4. Which of the following medications is NOT used in the management of bipolar disorder?
A. Lithium
B. Haloperidol
C. Sodium valproate
D. Paroxetine
5. Why are methylcellulose and similar agents commonly included in ophthalmic solutions?
A. To increase ocular exposure time
B. To reduce inflammation of the eye by their soothing effect
C. To suspend soluble drugs
D. To reduce drop size
6. Which one of the following drugs should be avoided in a patient taking moclobemide?
A. Ranitidine
B. Nitrazepam
C. Sumatriptan
D. Furosemide
7. Which one of the following is NOT a central neurotransmitter?
A. Serotonin
B. Noradrenaline
C. Dopamine
D. Cyclic adenosine phosphate
8. Which of the following benzodiazepines is NOT used for the treatment of epilepsy?
A. Clonazepam
B. Oxazepam
C. Diazepam
D. Lorazepam
9. Tinnitus, headache, nausea, and sweating are characteristic features of which adverse effect?
A. Aspirin hypersensitivity
B. Paracetamol toxicity
C. Salicylate toxicity
D. Paracetamol hypersensitivity
10. What is the primary pharmacological action of isoprenaline?
A. Blocks alpha adrenoceptors
B. Stimulates beta adrenoceptors
C. Releases noradrenaline from noradrenergic nerves
D. Blocks dopaminergic receptors
11. Which parameter is used to monitor the effectiveness of enoxaparin therapy?
A. Enoxaparin blood level
B. International Normalised Ratio (INR)
C. Platelet count
D. Antifactor Xa
12. A patient is prescribed Lugol’s solution (5% iodine) at a dose of 0.3 mL three times daily. How much iodine does this provide per day?
A. 15 mg
B. 30 mg
C. 45 mg
D. 90 mg
13. Oxidation of a secondary alcohol produces which compound?
A. Ketone
B. Primary alcohol
C. Aldehyde
D. Ether
14. How much of ingredient A is required to prepare 500 mL of an aqueous solution such that 25 mL diluted to 100 mL yields a 1:2000 solution?
A. 0.1 g
B. 1 g
C. 1.25 g
D. 2.5 g
15. Which of the following is a recommended option for managing pain associated with herpes zoster?
A. Topical betamethasone dipropionate
B. Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)
C. Topical capsaicin
D. Topical tretinoin
16. What is the primary effect of parathyroid hormone?
A. Increased mobilisation of calcium from bone
B. Decreased renal tubular reabsorption of calcium
C. Decreased resorption of phosphate from bone
D. Decreased excretion of phosphate
17. What is the most appropriate treatment for scabies infestation?
A. Permethrin
B. Mebendazole
C. Malathion
D. Tinidazole
18. A drug undergoing hydrolysis has an initial concentration of 0.16 M, which falls to 0.04 M after 6 days. Assuming first-order kinetics, what is the half-life?
A. 1 day
B. 2 days
C. 3 days
D. 4 days
19. Altered sweat composition is a key feature of which disease?
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Glomerulonephritis
C. Diabetes insipidus
D. Cystic fibrosis
20. Propranolol is NOT indicated for which of the following conditions?
A. Oesophageal varices
B. Phaeochromocytoma
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Migraine
Practical Tips to Score Higher in OPRA 2026
Success in the OPRA Exam requires a balanced approach that combines strong subject knowledge with an effective exam strategy. Consistent MCQ practice helps improve speed, accuracy, and confidence, while focused revision ensures better clinical judgement on exam day.
- Practise MCQs regularly to build exam familiarity and confidence
- Focus on high-yield areas such as pharmaceutical calculations
- Revise drug interactions, adverse effects, and mechanisms of action thoroughly
- Read each question carefully before selecting an answer
- Double-check units and conversions in calculation-based questions
- Avoid assumptions and rely only on the information provided
- Review incorrect answers to strengthen weak concepts
- Revisit frequently tested topics to reduce repeated mistakes
Why OPRA Sample Papers Are Essential
OPRA sample papers closely replicate the structure and difficulty of the actual exam, helping candidates understand how questions are framed. They play a crucial role in developing clinical reasoning skills and improving time management under exam conditions.
- Simulate the real OPRA exam environment
- Improve understanding of question patterns and complexity
- Enhance clinical reasoning and decision-making skills
- Help develop effective time management strategies
- Identify weak areas early in preparation
- Build confidence before the actual exam
- Ensure alignment with the latest OPRA exam pattern for 2026
Answer Key
| Question Number | Correct Answer |
| 1 | D |
| 2 | D |
| 3 | A |
| 4 | D |
| 5 | A |
| 6 | C |
| 7 | D |
| 8 | B |
| 9 | C |
| 10 | B |
| 11 | D |
| 12 | C |
| 13 | A |
| 14 | B |
| 15 | C |
| 16 | A |
| 17 | A |
| 18 | C |
| 19 | D |
| 20 | C |
Final Thoughts
The OPRA Exam 2026 is a gateway to a rewarding pharmacy career in Australia. Practicing realistic, exam-oriented MCQs is one of the smartest ways to prepare. This sample paper reflects the level of understanding and clinical judgement expected in the real exam.
Download the OPRA Exam Sample Paper PDF and take a confident step closer to achieving pharmacist registration in Australia.